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Media and Topologies for the Network+ Exam

📄 Contents

  1. Domain 1.0—Media and Topologies
  2. Short Answers
  3. Answers and Explanations
Charles Brooks provides 125 questions with detailed answers from the Network+ exam's "Domain 1.0 — Media and Topologies" objective.
This chapter is from the book

Domain 1.0—Media and Topologies

Objective 1.1: Recognize Logical or Physical Topologies, Given a Schematic Diagram or Description

  1. Which of the following types of topology has at least two network connections on every device on the network?

    1. Bus

    2. Mesh

    3. Ring

    4. Star

  2. When describing the structure of a network, which term is used to describe the physical layout?

    1. Physical map

    2. Backbone

    3. Network

    4. Topology

  3. Which of the following network topologies is the most fault tolerant?

    1. Mesh

    2. Hierarchical star

    3. Ring

    4. Star

  4. The most widely used _______ topology are the Internet and the telephone network.

    1. star

    2. bus

    3. mesh

    4. token ring

  5. Which of the following is a key benefit to implementing a token ring topology?

    1. IP addressing is eliminated.

    2. Workstations don't contend for network access.

    3. Token ring is always implemented in full duplex.

    4. Nodes are added without interrupting the network.

  6. Nodes connected in a star topology _____.

    1. must have TCP/IP installed

    2. must be assigned an IP address

    3. may only use Ethernet

    4. connect to a central hub

  7. What is the hub used in a token ring network called?

    1. Patch Panel

    2. AUI

    3. Switch

    4. MSAU

  8. Which of the following IEEE 802 standards pertain to token ring?

    1. IEEE 802.3

    2. IEEE 802.5

    3. IEEE 802.2

    4. IEEE 802.11

  9. Which of the following represents the best solution for connecting three computers in a LAN?

    1. Peer-to-peer

    2. Server-based

    3. Direct connect

    4. Router-based

  10. A disadvantage of a ring topology is that _____.

    1. nodes must be connected in a point-to-point manner

    2. a shorted bus will crash the network

    3. the ring has to be opened to add a new node

    4. it requires an excessive number of connections

  11. Which of the following network types is easiest to add new nodes to?

    1. Ring

    2. Star

    3. Bus

    4. Mesh

  12. Which of the following is not an advantage of the star topology compared to the mesh topology?

    1. Easy to manage

    2. Easy to add nodes

    3. Low overhead

    4. High fault-tolerant

  13. Which of the following is not a common logical topology?

    1. Bus

    2. Ring

    3. Star

    4. Mesh

  14. A star topology consists of a central ____.

    1. gateway

    2. router

    3. brouter

    4. hub

  15. In a bus topology _______.

    1. nodes connect to a hub in a point-to-point arrangement

    2. each end of the bus must be properly terminated

    3. nodes are connected through redundant links

    4. fiber optic cable is the predominate media

Objective 1.2: Specify the Main Features of the 802.2 (LLC), 802.3 (Ethernet), 802.5 (Token Ring), 802.11b (Wireless), and FDDI Networking Technologies

  1. Which IEEE specification does CSMA/CD map to?

    1. IEEE 802.5

    2. IEEE 802.2

    3. IEEE 802.3

    4. IEEE 802.11b

  2. Which of the following uses a coaxial cable type and has a maximum segment length of 185 meters?

    1. 10BASE2

    2. 10BASE5

    3. 10BASE-T

    4. 100BASE-TX

  3. Which of the following IEEE standards describes the LLC sublayer?

    1. IEEE 802.5

    2. IEEE 802.12

    3. IEEE 802.3

    4. IEEE 802.2

  4. What is the maximum number of stations permitted on an IEEE 802.3 network?

    1. 16

    2. 1,024

    3. 100

    4. 1,500

  5. Which IEEE 802 standard contains specifications for 100BASE-T?

    1. IEEE 802.3

    2. IEEE 802.4

    3. IEEE 802.8

    4. IEEE 802.14

  6. Which of the following statements is true?

    1. The token in a token ring network is a 2-byte data stream passed from node to node.

    2. Token ring networks are less reliable than Ethernet networks.

    3. Token ring networks offer a higher degree of reliability than Ethernet networks.

    4. The data delivery time in a token ring network is not predictable.

  7. Which of the following IEEE 802 standards describes token ring?

    1. IEEE 802.5

    2. IEEE 802.12

    3. IEEE 802.2

    4. IEEE 802.3

  8. Of the following, which is a valid data rate for token ring?

    1. 12Mbps

    2. 16Mbps

    3. 8Mbps

    4. 28Mbps

  9. A user equipped with an IEEE 802.11b card is unable to connect to an access point. Which of the following is true?

    1. The user's IEEE 802.11b card can only connect to a router.

    2. The user's IEEE 802.11b card needs to have an RJ-45 connection.

    3. The user's IEEE 802.11b card needs to be first connected to a 10BASE-T hub.

    4. The user's IEEE 802.11b card is too far away from the access point.

  10. To exchange files between workstations equipped with IEEE 802.11b cards, a(n) ______ is needed.

    1. MSAU

    2. access point

    3. bus hub

    4. router

  11. What is the data rate of IEEE 802.11a?

    1. 54Mbps

    2. 4Mbps

    3. 100Mbps

    4. 11Mbps

  12. Which connection type is the most reliable?

    1. Connection-oriented

    2. Connectionless

    3. UDP

    4. SMTP

  13. What is not an example of a bit-oriented protocol?

    1. SDLC

    2. LAPB

    3. HDLC

    4. BCS

Objective 1.3: Specify the Characteristics (e.g., Speed, Length, Topology, Cable Type, etc.) of the Following 802.3 (Ethernet) Standards: 10BASE-T, 10BASE-TX, 10BASE2, 10BASE5, 100BASE-FX, Gigabit Ethernet

  1. Which of the following is the expected data rate on a 10BASE-T network?

    1. 100Mbps

    2. 10Mbps

    3. 500Mbps

    4. 1000Mbps

  2. The segment length from hub port to workstation NIC on a 10BASE-T network should be no longer than ______.

    1. 100 meters

    2. 185 meters

    3. 200 meters

    4. 10 meters

  3. A network operating at 10Mbps uses coaxial cable with segment lengths from node to hub of 185 meters. This type of network is _____.

    1. 10BASE5

    2. 10BASE2

    3. 10BASE-T

    4. 100BASE-T

  4. In a 100BASE-T network, the distance of cable from hub to workstation should not exceed ______.

    1. 25 meters

    2. 50 meters

    3. 100 meters

    4. 200 meters

  5. What is the maximum cable segment length for 10BASE2?

    1. 200 meters

    2. 100 meters

    3. 185 meters

    4. 1,024 meters

  6. You have a workstation that is 153 meters from the server, there is no repeater and it uses 10BASE-T wiring. You cannot connect to the network.

    Required Objective: Connect to the server.

    Optional Objectives: Faster connection, easier access for users.

    Proposed Solution: Replace the old NIC with a 100BASEFX NIC.

    1. This meets only the required objective.

    2. This meets the optional objectives.

    3. This meets the required and one of the optional objectives.

    4. This does not meet the required or optional objectives.

  7. IEEE 802.5 refers to _____.

    1. Token Bus

    2. Token ring

    3. Ethernet

    4. MAN

  8. Which of the following networking standards specifies a maximum segment length of 100 meters?

    1. 10BASE-T

    2. 10BASE5

    3. 10BASEYX

    4. 10BASE2

  9. Which of the following technologies uses Category 5 cable?

    1. 100BASE-TX

    2. Fiber-optic

    3. 10BASE5

    4. 10BASE2

  10. What kind of connector would you use to make a patch cable for a 10BASE-T network?

    1. RJ-11

    2. RJ-45

    3. RJ-T

    4. BNC

  11. What is the maximum frequency limit of thicknet coaxial cable?

    1. 1 MHz

    2. 100 MHz

    3. 10 MHz

    4. 200 MHz

  12. If you increase the resistance on a wire, what happens to the signal energy loss?

    1. There is no change.

    2. The signal energy loss decreases.

    3. The signal energy loss increases.

    4. The signal energy change fluctuates wildly between very high increases and very high decreases.

  13. What is the proper termination for unshielded twisted-pair network cable?

    1. 150 ohms

    2. 50 ohms

    3. 93 ohms

    4. 100 ohms

  14. What kind of insulator do coaxial cables use to separate the center wire from the braided conductor?

    1. Glass

    2. Polyurethane

    3. Copper

    4. Wool

  15. What cause intersymbol interference?

    1. Ohms

    2. Crosstalk

    3. Adaptive equalizers

    4. Reactive components of cables

  16. What does an adaptive equalizer do?

    1. It increases intersymbol interference.

    2. It samples and evaluates data for intersymbol interference.

    3. It promotes crosstalk in wires.

    4. It prevents crosstalk in wires.

  17. How does an equalizer lower ISI?

    1. It increases the twists in the copper cabling.

    2. It increases crosstalk.

    3. It incorporates phase shifts to counter the effects of the channel.

    4. An equalizer normally increases ISI.

  18. Which of the following types of noise results from sunspot activity?

    1. Impulse noise

    2. Atmospheric noise

    3. Frequency noise

    4. Crosstalk

  19. What cable type is used with the IEEE 100BASE-FX standard?

    1. Coaxial

    2. Fiber optic

    3. STP

    4. UTP

  20. Which of the following types of noise is caused by engine ignition systems?

    1. Sunspots

    2. Crosstalk

    3. Impulse noise

    4. Twists in the cabling

  21. Which of the following types of noise originates from carrier frequencies?

    1. Atmospheric noise

    2. Impulse noise

    3. Crosstalk

    4. Frequency noise

  22. Crosstalk occurs when you lay unshielded cables _____.

    1. in parallel

    2. in perpendicular

    3. in right angles

    4. end-to-end

  23. In early days, you could hear another conversation while talking on the telephone. What caused this problem?

    1. Attenuation

    2. Signal loss

    3. Crosstalk

    4. Parity

  24. Distortion is expressed using what kind of measurement?

    1. Watts

    2. Decibels

    3. Amps

    4. Meters

  25. If the power of the noise is 5 mW, and the power of the desired signal is 50 mW, what is the SNR, in decibels?

    1. 18 dB

    2. 10 dB

    3. 5 dB

    4. 1 dB

  26. What is an acceptable SNR for digital communications?

    1. 60 dB

    2. 50 dB

    3. 40 dB

    4. 70 dB

  27. What is the maximum segment length of a 100BASE-FX Ethernet connection?

    1. 100m

    2. 265m

    3. 412m

    4. 1000m

  28. What is the standard speed for an IEEE 100BASE-TX network?

    1. 100Mbps

    2. 200Mbps

    3. 10Mbps

    4. 100bps

  29. Thinnet is also referred to as ______.

    1. 10BASE-T

    2. 10BASE5

    3. Cheapernet

    4. Thin UTP

  30. What is the topic of the IEEE 802.10 standard?

    1. LAN security

    2. Broadband technology

    3. Wireless LANs

    4. 100VG-AnyLAN

  31. Which IEEE standard describes 100VG-AnyLAN?

    1. IEEE 802.3

    2. IEEE 802.12

    3. IEEE 802.10

    4. IEEE 802.2

  32. Which of the IEEE 802 standards describes Ethernet?

    1. IEEE 802.2

    2. IEEE 802.12

    3. IEEE 802.3

    4. IEEE 802.5

  33. A client in a 10BASE-T LAN using category 5 UTP is unable to access the server. The hub is located 80 meters from a patch panel. The distance from the patch panel to wall outlet is 15 meters. The patch cable from wall outlet to client is 10 meters. Which of the following statements best describes the proposed solution?

    Required Results: To provide access to the server from the client workstation.

    Optional Desired Results: To improve data rates on the LAN and to reduce the amount of logged downtime.

    Proposed Solution: Reduce the length of the patch cable from wall outlet to client workstation to 5 meters.

    1. The proposed solution produces the required result and one of the optional desired results.

    2. The proposed solution produces the required result and both of the optional desired results.

    3. The proposed solution produces the required result but neither of the optional desired results.

    4. The proposed solution does not produce the required result but produces both of the optional desired results.

  34. What is the maximum segment length of 10BASE-T STP cable?

    1. 50 meters

    2. 100 meters

    3. 75 meters

    4. 200 meters

  35. What is the maximum data rate of a 10BASE-T network?

    1. 100Mbps

    2. 500Mbps

    3. 10Mbps

    4. 1000Mbps

  36. In a 100BASE-T4 network, the distance of cable from hub to workstation should not exceed _____.

    1. 200 meters

    2. 50 meters

    3. 25 meters

    4. 100 meters

  37. Which of the following cable types is recommended for 100BASE-TX networks?

    1. Thinnet

    2. Thicknet

    3. Category 5 UTP

    4. Category 3 UTP

  38. Which of the following uses only two conductors?

    1. 100BASEFX

    2. 100BASE-T

    3. 10BASE-T

    4. 10BASE5

  39. What is the maximum segment length of 100BASE-TX?

    1. 100 meters

    2. 200 meters

    3. 50 meters

    4. 75 meters

  40. Which 100Mbps standard uses all eight wires in a category 5 cable?

    1. 10BASE-T

    2. 100BASE-T4

    3. 100BASEFX

    4. 100BASE-TX

  41. What type of network media is used with 100BASE-FX?

    1. UTP

    2. Coaxial

    3. Fiber optic

    4. Microwave

Objective 1.4: Recognize the Following Media Connectors and Describe Their Uses: RJ-11, RJ-45, AUI, BNC, ST, and SC.

  1. You are making some category 5 twisted-pair cables and have run out of connectors. What type of connector should you order from your supplier?

    1. RJ-45

    2. RJ-11

    3. BNC

    4. ST

  2. You are configuring a router. According to the manual, you will need a transceiver to connect to the LAN ports of the router. What kind of physical interface does the router have?

    1. MSAU

    2. AUI

    3. RJ-11

    4. BNC

  3. In a hardware loopback plug, which two wire numbers are connected?

    1. 3 and 4

    2. 1 and 3

    3. 1 and 2

    4. 2 and 6

    5. 3 and 5

  4. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for encryption and decryption?

    1. Session

    2. Network

    3. Presentation

    4. Physical

  5. What type of NIC card connector should be used for coaxial cabling infrastructure?

    1. BNC

    2. RJ-11

    3. RJ-45

    4. RS-232

  6. Which of the following connector types may be used with SCSI devices?

    1. DB-15

    2. 68-Pin High Density

    3. 50-Pin Centronics

    4. DB-25

  7. Which one of the following connectors may be used on a SCSI cable?

    1. Fiber optic

    2. DB-9

    3. AUI

    4. Centronics 50

  8. Which of the following uses an RJ-45 connector?

    1. Coaxial cable

    2. UTP cable

    3. Fiber optic cable

    4. Thinnet cable

  9. A client computer uses RG-58 cable to connect to a bus network. Which of the following is most likely to be found on the client NIC?

    1. RJ-45

    2. RJ-11

    3. BNC

    4. ST

Objective 1.5: Choose the Appropriate Media Type and Connectors to Add a Client to an Existing Network

  1. Which communication method allows communication to occur in both directions at the same time on a single cable?

    1. Multiplex

    2. Simplex

    3. Duplex

    4. Full duplex

  2. What is the advantage of fiber-optic cable over copper-based media?

    1. It's immune to EMI interference.

    2. It interfaces easily to other media types.

    3. It's cheaper.

    4. It uses conventional radio waves for a carrier.

  3. Select the best networking media for a new installation in which 10 clients are connected to a hub in a 100BASE-T network.

    1. Category 3 UTP

    2. RG-58

    3. Fiber optic

    4. Category 5 UTP

  4. While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, you notice that the network card in your system is operating at 10Mbps in half-duplex mode. At what speed is the network link operating?

    1. 10Mbps

    2. 5Mbps

    3. 2.5Mbps

    4. 20Mbps

  5. You are tasked with specifying a way to connect two buildings across a parking lot. The distance between the two buildings is 78 meters. An underground wiring duct exists between the two buildings, although there are concerns about using it because it also houses high-voltage electrical cables. The budget for the project is very tight, but your manager wants you to specify the most suitable solution. Which of the following cable types would you recommend?

    1. UTP

    2. Fiber-optic

    3. Thin coax

    4. STP

  6. Which two of the following connectors would you use when working with fiber-optic cable?

    1. ST

    2. RJ-45

    3. SC

    4. RJ-11

  7. Which of the following may be a disadvantage of using shielded twisted-pair cabling?

    1. It requires an AUI connector on each end.

    2. It can only be used in token ring networks.

    3. It must be properly grounded.

    4. Data rates are limited to 4Mbps.

  8. Which of the following is an advantage of fiber-optic cable?

    1. It's comparatively easy to install.

    2. It's immune to EMI interference.

    3. It's comparatively inexpensive.

    4. It requires little specialized training to install.

  9. Which of the following IEEE standards specifies fiber-optic technology?

    1. IEEE 802.12

    2. IEEE 802.8

    3. IEEE 802.3

    4. IEEE 802.5

  10. What kind of cable is totally immune from EMI interference?

    1. Fiber-optic cable

    2. Category 3

    3. Category 5

    4. Coaxial Cable

  11. What is not usually a factor that can be attributed to losses in fiber optic cable?

    1. Improper splices

    2. Misaligned connectors

    3. Too many twists

    4. Severe bends

  12. Why is a bent cable in fiber optics undesirable in terms of signal loss?

    1. It does not matter.

    2. Bent cable reacts with the twists to create more crosstalk.

    3. The cable is susceptible to atmospheric noise when it is bent.

    4. The energy will refract into the cladding and be lost.

  13. An amplifier has an input power of 20 mW (milliwatts) and a power output of 200 mW. What is the gain in decibels?

    1. 10 dB

    2. 5 dB

    3. 2 dB

    4. 1 dB

  14. What does a negative dB mean when evaluating the performance of a line?

    1. Your server needs to be replaced.

    2. Gain of signal strength.

    3. Nothing.

    4. Loss of signal strength.

  15. A particular advantage of category 5 UTP is that it eliminates _______.

    1. all EMI

    2. a maximum data rate

    3. crosstalk

    4. the need for NICs

Objective 1.6: Identify the Purpose, Features, and Functions of the Following Network Components: Hubs, Switches, Bridges, Routers, Gateways, CSU/DSU, NICs, WAPs, and Modems

  1. What type of connection is required at a hub port that's marked MDI-X?

    1. Straight-through pinning at the port connector is required.

    2. Use an AUI cable at the port.

    3. A crossover cable is required at the port.

    4. A BNC connector must be used.

  2. In addition to workstations, a 10BASE-T hub has a router connected to it. Which of the following is a good indicator that the router is connected to the hub?

    1. The 10BASE-T link light on the router

    2. The self-test lights on the hub

    3. The power-on light on the router

    4. NIC link lights

  3. A bridge is used to ______.

    1. replace multiple repeaters

    2. interconnect only networks of the same access protocol

    3. reroute data around LANs

    4. interconnect networks of different access protocols

  4. Consider the following description of a network and choose the best connection component for it from those listed. An Ethernet LAN consists of 10 clients, a standalone server, and two printers. The media used is category 5 UTP.

    1. Gateway

    2. MAU

    3. Hub

    4. Transceiver

  5. A large LAN has been segmented into two separate LANs. Which network element is the best choice for connecting the two LANs?

    1. A gateway

    2. A hub

    3. A router

    4. A NIC

  6. A hub port is marked MDI-X. What does this mean?

    1. The port is unavailable.

    2. A crossover cable is required at the port.

    3. A coaxial cable is required at the port.

    4. A separate transceiver is required at the port.

  7. You want to connect two networks that are using different protocols. What type of device should you use?

    1. Bridge

    2. Router

    3. Repeater

    4. Gateway

  8. What UART chip is needed to provide a modem connection of 115200 bps?

    1. 165.xx

    2. 82.xx

    3. 166.xx

    4. 169.xx

  9. By using network monitoring tools, you determine that your 10BASE2 network is suffering performance degradation from too many collisions. Which of the following devices could you use to divide the network and therefore reduce the number of collisions?

    1. Source-route bridge

    2. Transparent bridge

    3. MSAU

    4. Ethernet switch

  10. For many years, the design department and the marketing department have operated separate networks. The design department uses AppleTalk and the marketing department uses token ring. Now, the two departments have decided that they want to be able to access files from each other's servers. What network device or service would you implement to facilitate this?

    1. Router

    2. Source-route bridge

    3. Gateway

    4. Transparent bridge

  11. You are the network administrator for a token ring network. A NIC in a system fails, and you replace it with a new one. However, the system is unable to connect to the network. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

    1. The card is a 100Mbps card, and the ring is configured for only 10Mbps.

    2. The card is set to the wrong ring speed.

    3. The card is set to full-duplex, and the ring is running at only half-duplex.

    4. The card is faulty.

  12. While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, you notice that the network card in your system is operating at 10Mbps in half-duplex mode. At what speed is the network link operating?

    1. 2.5Mbps

    2. 5Mbps

    3. 10Mbps

    4. 20Mbps

  13. A server has two modems installed. The first is configured for COM 2, IRQ 11, and I/O of 03E8-03EF. The second is configured for COM 3, IRQ 15, and I/O of 03E8-03EF. What action should be taken in regard to the configuration settings?

    1. Change the IRQ of the first modem.

    2. Change the IRQ of the second modem.

    3. No action is required.

    4. Change the I/O of the first modem.

  14. Which device is used to convert from one protocol to another?

    1. A hub

    2. A gateway

    3. A router

    4. A switch

  15. The hub used in a token ring network is called a(n) ______.

    1. AUI

    2. MAU

    3. Concentrator

    4. Transceiver

  16. A ______ is used to provide a centralized connection point for network access.

    1. modem

    2. RJ-45

    3. hub

    4. NIC

  17. Two stackable hubs are connected with category 5 UTP that uses straight-through pinning at the RJ-45 connectors. The connectors are inserted into hub ports labeled MDI-X. Which of the following is true?

    1. The straight-through UTP must be replaced with a crossover.

    2. Only the hubs will communicate, but not the workstations connected to them.

    3. The hubs cannot be connected.

    4. The hubs are properly connected.

  18. Which of the following devices is used to pass data between different network access protocols?

    1. Bridge

    2. Router

    3. Hub

    4. Brouter

  19. Which of the following contains a transceiver that is used to send and receive data frames on and off the network?

    1. Gateway

    2. Hub

    3. Router

    4. NIC

  20. An Ethernet and a token ring LAN may be interconnected using a _______.

    1. repeater

    2. transceiver

    3. bridge

    4. fiber cable

  21. Which device is used to transfer packets between different networks?

    1. Bridge

    2. Router

    3. Repeater

    4. MAU

  22. A node on an Ethernet LAN at IP needs to send a message to a node on a token ring LAN at IP Which of the following components will handle the task?

    1. Bridge

    2. Repeater

    3. Router

    4. Hub

  23. Which of the following is an advantage of using a dynamic router?

    1. It requires manual intervention.

    2. It requires more administrative time.

    3. It's easier to set up and configure.

    4. It requires less administrative time.

  24. An Ethernet frame is to be transported across the Internet using TCP/IP. Which of the following is true?

    1. IP addresses are discarded at each router.

    2. IP addresses are updated at each router.

    3. TCP is discarded at each router.

    4. MAC addresses are updated at each router.

  25. By interpreting baselines, you determine that the volume of traffic on your network is reaching unacceptable levels. The network is a 10BASE-T system with hubs. Which of the following upgrade paths are you most likely to recommend?

    1. Implement 100BASE-T by replacing all the network cards and hubs with 100Mbps devices.

    2. Implement switches in place of the hubs.

    3. Install a router to divide the network into two segments, thereby reducing the overall amount of network traffic.

    4. Implement a bridge.

  26. Which of the following is an end-to-end digital communication path?

    1. ISDN

    2. PSTN

    3. POTS

    4. PPTP

  27. A standalone computer may connect to an ISP using a _______.

    1. patch panel

    2. repeater

    3. bridge

    4. modem

  28. In an ISDN channel, signaling information is contained in the _______.

    1. BRI

    2. bearer channel

    3. data channel

    4. PRI

  29. Which of the following best describes active hubs and repeaters?

    1. Repeaters link network segments while active hubs do not.

    2. Both active hubs and repeaters restore signals.

    3. Repeaters restore signal integrity while active hubs do not.

    4. Neither active hubs nor repeaters link network segments.

  30. To directly connect the NIC cards in two personal computers, what's needed?

    1. Hub

    2. Crossover cable

    3. Router

    4. Bridge

  31. What is the function of a repeater?

    1. To boost the signal strength and restore its shape.

    2. To reconcile MAC and IP addresses.

    3. To connect different networks.

    4. To connect Ethernet and token ring LANs.

  32. Which of the following statements best describes dynamic routing?

    1. Routing paths cannot be changed.

    2. The IEEE 802.2 protocol stipulates that routers will be dynamic.

    3. Routers send and receive advertisements that automatically update the router database.

    4. The network administrator periodically updates the router database.

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Pearson Education, Inc., 221 River Street, Hoboken, New Jersey 07030, (Pearson) presents this site to provide information about products and services that can be purchased through this site.

This privacy notice provides an overview of our commitment to privacy and describes how we collect, protect, use and share personal information collected through this site. Please note that other Pearson websites and online products and services have their own separate privacy policies.

Collection and Use of Information

To conduct business and deliver products and services, Pearson collects and uses personal information in several ways in connection with this site, including:

Questions and Inquiries

For inquiries and questions, we collect the inquiry or question, together with name, contact details (email address, phone number and mailing address) and any other additional information voluntarily submitted to us through a Contact Us form or an email. We use this information to address the inquiry and respond to the question.

Online Store

For orders and purchases placed through our online store on this site, we collect order details, name, institution name and address (if applicable), email address, phone number, shipping and billing addresses, credit/debit card information, shipping options and any instructions. We use this information to complete transactions, fulfill orders, communicate with individuals placing orders or visiting the online store, and for related purposes.


Pearson may offer opportunities to provide feedback or participate in surveys, including surveys evaluating Pearson products, services or sites. Participation is voluntary. Pearson collects information requested in the survey questions and uses the information to evaluate, support, maintain and improve products, services or sites, develop new products and services, conduct educational research and for other purposes specified in the survey.

Contests and Drawings

Occasionally, we may sponsor a contest or drawing. Participation is optional. Pearson collects name, contact information and other information specified on the entry form for the contest or drawing to conduct the contest or drawing. Pearson may collect additional personal information from the winners of a contest or drawing in order to award the prize and for tax reporting purposes, as required by law.


If you have elected to receive email newsletters or promotional mailings and special offers but want to unsubscribe, simply email information@informit.com.

Service Announcements

On rare occasions it is necessary to send out a strictly service related announcement. For instance, if our service is temporarily suspended for maintenance we might send users an email. Generally, users may not opt-out of these communications, though they can deactivate their account information. However, these communications are not promotional in nature.

Customer Service

We communicate with users on a regular basis to provide requested services and in regard to issues relating to their account we reply via email or phone in accordance with the users' wishes when a user submits their information through our Contact Us form.

Other Collection and Use of Information

Application and System Logs

Pearson automatically collects log data to help ensure the delivery, availability and security of this site. Log data may include technical information about how a user or visitor connected to this site, such as browser type, type of computer/device, operating system, internet service provider and IP address. We use this information for support purposes and to monitor the health of the site, identify problems, improve service, detect unauthorized access and fraudulent activity, prevent and respond to security incidents and appropriately scale computing resources.

Web Analytics

Pearson may use third party web trend analytical services, including Google Analytics, to collect visitor information, such as IP addresses, browser types, referring pages, pages visited and time spent on a particular site. While these analytical services collect and report information on an anonymous basis, they may use cookies to gather web trend information. The information gathered may enable Pearson (but not the third party web trend services) to link information with application and system log data. Pearson uses this information for system administration and to identify problems, improve service, detect unauthorized access and fraudulent activity, prevent and respond to security incidents, appropriately scale computing resources and otherwise support and deliver this site and its services.

Cookies and Related Technologies

This site uses cookies and similar technologies to personalize content, measure traffic patterns, control security, track use and access of information on this site, and provide interest-based messages and advertising. Users can manage and block the use of cookies through their browser. Disabling or blocking certain cookies may limit the functionality of this site.

Do Not Track

This site currently does not respond to Do Not Track signals.


Pearson uses appropriate physical, administrative and technical security measures to protect personal information from unauthorized access, use and disclosure.


This site is not directed to children under the age of 13.


Pearson may send or direct marketing communications to users, provided that

  • Pearson will not use personal information collected or processed as a K-12 school service provider for the purpose of directed or targeted advertising.
  • Such marketing is consistent with applicable law and Pearson's legal obligations.
  • Pearson will not knowingly direct or send marketing communications to an individual who has expressed a preference not to receive marketing.
  • Where required by applicable law, express or implied consent to marketing exists and has not been withdrawn.

Pearson may provide personal information to a third party service provider on a restricted basis to provide marketing solely on behalf of Pearson or an affiliate or customer for whom Pearson is a service provider. Marketing preferences may be changed at any time.

Correcting/Updating Personal Information

If a user's personally identifiable information changes (such as your postal address or email address), we provide a way to correct or update that user's personal data provided to us. This can be done on the Account page. If a user no longer desires our service and desires to delete his or her account, please contact us at customer-service@informit.com and we will process the deletion of a user's account.


Users can always make an informed choice as to whether they should proceed with certain services offered by InformIT. If you choose to remove yourself from our mailing list(s) simply visit the following page and uncheck any communication you no longer want to receive: www.informit.com/u.aspx.

Sale of Personal Information

Pearson does not rent or sell personal information in exchange for any payment of money.

While Pearson does not sell personal information, as defined in Nevada law, Nevada residents may email a request for no sale of their personal information to NevadaDesignatedRequest@pearson.com.

Supplemental Privacy Statement for California Residents

California residents should read our Supplemental privacy statement for California residents in conjunction with this Privacy Notice. The Supplemental privacy statement for California residents explains Pearson's commitment to comply with California law and applies to personal information of California residents collected in connection with this site and the Services.

Sharing and Disclosure

Pearson may disclose personal information, as follows:

  • As required by law.
  • With the consent of the individual (or their parent, if the individual is a minor)
  • In response to a subpoena, court order or legal process, to the extent permitted or required by law
  • To protect the security and safety of individuals, data, assets and systems, consistent with applicable law
  • In connection the sale, joint venture or other transfer of some or all of its company or assets, subject to the provisions of this Privacy Notice
  • To investigate or address actual or suspected fraud or other illegal activities
  • To exercise its legal rights, including enforcement of the Terms of Use for this site or another contract
  • To affiliated Pearson companies and other companies and organizations who perform work for Pearson and are obligated to protect the privacy of personal information consistent with this Privacy Notice
  • To a school, organization, company or government agency, where Pearson collects or processes the personal information in a school setting or on behalf of such organization, company or government agency.


This web site contains links to other sites. Please be aware that we are not responsible for the privacy practices of such other sites. We encourage our users to be aware when they leave our site and to read the privacy statements of each and every web site that collects Personal Information. This privacy statement applies solely to information collected by this web site.

Requests and Contact

Please contact us about this Privacy Notice or if you have any requests or questions relating to the privacy of your personal information.

Changes to this Privacy Notice

We may revise this Privacy Notice through an updated posting. We will identify the effective date of the revision in the posting. Often, updates are made to provide greater clarity or to comply with changes in regulatory requirements. If the updates involve material changes to the collection, protection, use or disclosure of Personal Information, Pearson will provide notice of the change through a conspicuous notice on this site or other appropriate way. Continued use of the site after the effective date of a posted revision evidences acceptance. Please contact us if you have questions or concerns about the Privacy Notice or any objection to any revisions.

Last Update: November 17, 2020